What is the difference between vehicle interference and criminal damage to motor vehicles? Answers on a post card please.  If someone smashes a side window why should we necessarily assume that their intention,  on a balance of probability, was to steal from the vehicle, steal the vehicle or TWOC it.

OK, so the side window is smashed, no entry is gained, therefore there is no search and there is no laptop on the front seat, is it OK to suggest since there is a stereo inside then the intent must have been to steal? In terms of classification I think vehicle interference sits with theft and criminal damage sits with vehicle crime. Could it be we are trying to show vehicle crime as dropping by showing most damages to cars as vehicle interference? Now, that can’t be, for that might be “spin.”